[Stymie]

Vis a vis the Arthega/Arceda contretemps, when I was in Jr HS, my music teacher said that the "th" vs. "s" was introduced into the language by the fact that a King back in the medieval era had a pronounced lisp, and the court and then the people adopted his kind of speech.  Could be fake news, but, whatever..... 

What I do know is that when I took a semester in Spanish at Georgetown, my professor said that both contemporary Spanish and Mexican were phonetically corrupt languages.  He was a Costa Rican, and (not surprisingly) believed strongly that his county's pronunciation were the most pure form of the modern era.

[Stymie]

Vis a vis the Arthega/Arceda contretemps, when I was in Jr HS, my music teacher said that the "th" vs. "s" was introduced into the language by the fact that a King back in the medieval era had a pronounced lisp, and the court and then the people adopted his kind of speech.  Could be fake news, but, whatever..... 

What I do know is that when I took a semester in Spanish at Georgetown, my professor said that both contemporary Spanish and Mexican were phonetically corrupt languages.  He was a Costa Rican, and (not surprisingly) believed strongly that his county's pronunciation were the most pure form of the modern era.