[M T]

Can someone explain to me how the IRS allows any portion of the money that MUST be paid, and is publicly documented as required, in order to receive a particular product to be considered tax deductible at any non-zero rate?  Especially if that "donation" requirement is seemingly widespread in the industry and not a trivial amount.

Why doesn't the state consider this part of the purchase price and tax it accordingly?  For that matter, why doesn't the state or federal attorney general's office consider this practice to be a conspiracy to avoid taxes.

[M T]

Can someone explain to me how the IRS allows any portion of the money that MUST be paid, and is publicly documented as required, in order to receive a particular product to be considered tax deductible at any non-zero rate?  Especially if that "donation" requirement is seemingly widespread in the industry and not a trivial amount.

Why doesn't the state consider this part of the purchase price and tax it accordingly?  For that matter, why doesn't the state or federal attorney general's office consider this practice to be a conspiracy to avoid taxes.