(04-23-2020, 12:56 AM)magnus Wrote: So I'm a little confused with these false negative numbers. In a different thread, MT pointed out how PCR tests aren't close to 100% on negatives even with symptomatic cases. I also saw somewhere that depending on where you got the sample from a person, the chances of a representative sample varied.
So is the Abbott 16% false negative on top of the say 70% hit rate for a nasal swab? In other words, using abbott's quick test on nasal swabs would yield over 40% false negatives?
Yikes!
Makes you wonder about all those hospitals relaxing PPE requirements on negative resulted patients.
I don't think so. In an ideal world, the sensitivity and specificity of a test is determined by comparing it to a "gold standard" that is 100% or nearly 100% accurate. In the real world, since we don't know how good the "gold standard" is, the measures of sensitivity and specificity are determined independently in a artificially constructed cohort. It is possible to get samples that you know for certain are negative, without having to rely on a gold standard test to rule them out for disease; you pull stored samples from before the pandemic began. Nobody should have antibodies for SARS-CoV-2 before November 2019, so you can be sure that those are true negatives. Any positive serology result in a sample from pre-November-2019 can be considered a false positive.
For known positives, you can be fairly sure that anyone who had a positive viral RNA test was a true positive. A false positive viral PCR test would be exceedingly rare (it would have to involve something like a sample mix-up or contamination, as PCR is extremely specific), so you can be fairly sure that anyone who tested positive for COVID-19 with conventional tests are true positives.
But yes, otherwise, if you are comparing a test to an imperfect gold standard, there are some issues, and that can be adjusted for to some extent.
BC